Indian Polity and Governance- Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

PYQ-2023-24

Q1. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of 'Constituent Assembly'?

(1) Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July-August, 1946

(2) The Indian National Congress won 208 Seats

(3) Muslim League won 73 Seats

(4) Princely States won 93 Seats

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1,2 and 4

Q2. Which of the following matchings are not correct in respect of Schedules and Subjects in Indian Constitution?

Schedules Subjects

(1) II Emoluments for C & AG of India

(2) III Allocation of Seats in Council of States

(3) VI Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas

(4) IX First Amendment of Indian Constitution

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Q3. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Electoral College in India to elect President of India?

(1) It consists of Elected Members of Legislative Assemblies of National Capital Territory of Delhi, and Union Territory of Puducherry and were added to Electoral College by 70th Constitutional Amendment

(2) The number and values, of votes are based on the population of 1971 Census of India as per 42 Constitutional Amendment

(3) 84th Constitutional Amendment fixed the values of votes based on current population Census 2011

(4) The entry of MLAs of NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry came with effect from June 1, 1993

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 4

(D) 1 and 3

Q4. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the genesis of the 'Doctrine of Basic Structure of Constitution'?

(1) This doctrine was first propounded by Supreme Court in Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India Case (2) In Sajjan Singh Vs State of Rajasthan Case Supreme Court held that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution

(3) In Golaknath Vs the State of Punjab Case Supreme Court ruled that Art. 368 only lays down the procedure to amend the Constitution but does not give an absolute power to Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution

(4) In the case of Waman Rao Vs Union of India Supreme Court set aside the basic structure doctrine

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

Q5. Which Four Articles of Indian Constitution among the below given Articles were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976______?

(1) Art. 24 (A) (2) Art. 28 (A)

(3) Art. 39 (A) (4) Art. 43 (A)

(5) Art. 46 (A) (6) Art. 48 (A)

(7) Art. 144 (A) (8) Art. 323 (A)

(A) 1, 3, 5 and 7

(B) 3, 4, 6 and 7

(D) 1, 3, 5 and 8

Q6. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Union List of Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution?

(1) There are 100 subjects in the List

(2) This List signifies Co-operative Federalism

(3) There are 15 subjects in the Union List on which Parliament has an exclusive power to levy Taxes

(4) The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction over the matters in Union List

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1 and 4

(D) 2 and 4

Q7. Which of the following are Non- Constitutional Bodies in India?

(1) Tribunals

(2) National Investigation Agency

(3) Competition Commission of India

(4) Law Commission of India

(5) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

(6) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(A) 1, 5 and 6

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 2, 4 and 5

Q8. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of the Election Commission of India?

(1) Art. 327 gives power to Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to Legislatures

(2) BesidesChiefElectionCommissioner, two Additional Commissioners were appointed for the first time on January 1, 1990

(3) The Election Commissioner Amendment Act 1990 made the Election Commission a Multi- member body

(4) The decisions in Election Commission by the members are made by unanimous vote.

(A) 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

Q9. The Impeachment of Indian President inthe Parliament is a

(A) Political Procedure

(B) Legal Procedure

(D) None of these

Q10. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Advocate General in India?

(1) The Advocate General is the highest Law Officer of the State (2) He is appointed by the Governor on the advice of Chief Justice of High Court

(3) He should be eligible to be appointed as the Judge of a High Court

(4) He/She should not be more than 65 years of age.

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 4

(D) 1 and 3

Q11. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Private Member Bill introduced in Parliament?

(1) A Private Member is any Member of Parliament other than Member of Treasury Bench

(2) The Bill of this nature are introduced and debated only on Mondays

(3) It's introduction in the House requires One Month notice

(4) A Constitution Amendment Bill may be introduced either in Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha

(A) 3 and 4

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 3

Q12. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Anti-Defection Law?

(1) Anti-defection Law found place in the Constitution by 52nd Constitutional Amendment

(2) The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution was inserted in the Constitution in the year 1989 (3) The Anti-defection Law was reinforced in the year 2002

(4) Ifany Member who is independently elected joins any political party, he is not disqualified

(A) 2 and 4

(B) 1 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Q13. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Special Sessions' in Parliament ?

(1) The term Special Session of Parliament is defined in Art. 85 of Indian Constitution

(2) Art. 352 (8)(b) of Indian Constitution speaks about Special Sitting of the House of Parliament

(3) The proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament in special sessions would be limited

(4) If proclamation of Emergency is issued when the Parliament is not in Session, 1/3 of Lok Sabha and 1/3 of Rajya Sabha Members can ask the President to convene a Special Session of Parliament

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 3

Q14. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Due process of Law' and 'Procedure established by Law'?

(1) 'Due Process of Law' focuses on the formal adherence to legal procedures set by the Government

(II) 'Procedure established by Law' emphasises the protection of individuals Rights and fairness in the application of Law and Legal Proceedings

(A) I is correct and II is not correct

(B) II is correct and I is not correct

(D) Both I and II are not correct

Q15. Which one of the following is necessary for Pressure Groups to be effective in influencing Government Policy?

(A) Large number of Members

(B) Access to media outlets

(D) Legal support

Q16. Which of the following are correct? Substantive Public Policies are those which;

(1) plan and programme to get things done

(2) allocate resources/services to particular segments of larger society

(3) directly distribute benefits or costs for citizens

(4) impose restrictions on behaviours

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 3 only

Q17. Which of the statements about Public Policy are Correct? 'A Public Policy may be;

(1) General or Specific

(2) Broad or Narrow

(3) Positive or Negative

(4) Rational or Irrational

(A) 1,2 and 4

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1,3 and 4

Q18. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Distributive Public Policy'?

(1) It is also known as 'Patronage Policy'

(2) It is meant for specific segments of Society

(3) It is concerned with regulation and control of goods and services

(4) It requires little administrative discretion

(A) 1,2 and 4

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1,2 and 3

Q19. Which of the Articles of Indian Constitution relating to Fundamental Rights are not available to Foreigners in India?

(A) Articles 14, 20, 21, 24 and 26

(B) Articles 21, 21(A), 23, 25 and 28

(D) Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30

Q20. Which Four Amendments to Indian Constitution given below are related to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in India?

List of Amendments to Indian Constitution:

1, 8, 19, 29, 46, 65, 95, 102

(A) 1, 8, 65, 95

(B) 8, 19, 46, 102

(D) 1, 19, 29, 65

Q21. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of 'Right to Privacy'?

(1) The Nine-Judge Constitutional Bench that declared 'Right to Privacy' as Fundamental Right was headed by Justice J.S. Khehar

(2) The Supreme Court of India gave this historic judgement on August 24, 2018

(3) Justice J.S. Khehar was the former 42nd Chief Justice of India

(4) He was appointed as Chief Justice of India in the year 2017

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 3 and 4

Q22. Which of the following is not included in Art. 19 of Indian Constitution?

(A) Freedom of Speech and Expression

(B) Freedom of Movement

(D) Freedom of Association

Q23. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India refers to protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife?

(A) 39A

(B) 43A

(D) 51A

PYQ-2022-23

Q1. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Objective Resolution' of Indian Constitution?

(1) The Author of this Resolution was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(2) It was adopted by Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947

(3) The goal of this Resolution was to declare India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic Republic

(4) This Resolution later framed as the Preamble of Indian Constitution

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 4

(D) 1 and 2

Q2. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Constituent Assembly'?

(1) The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme of 'Cabinet Mission Plan'

(2) The total strength of Constituent Assembly originally was 369

(3) 296 seats were allotted to British India

(4) 73 seats to Princely States

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 3

Q3. Consider the following pairs in respect of 'Sources of Indian Constitution' and pick up the right matchings.

Item Source

(1) Office of Governor England

(2) Public Service Commission Govt. of India Act-1935

(3) Freedom of Trade & Commerce USA

(4) The Language of Preamble of Constitution Australia

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Q4. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution are not related to each other?

(1) Art. 12 and Art. 36

(2) Art. 13 and Art. 368

(3) Art. 22 and Art. 32 (2)

(4) Art. 141 and Art. 214

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 4 only

(D) All are related

Q5. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Lame Duck Politician?

(1) Having lost a re-election bid

(2) Choosing not to seek another term after expiration of his/her term.

(3) No term limit running for particular office again

(4) Abolition of Office after his/her official term

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) All above

Q6. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Basic Structure of Indian Constitution?

(1) It is a form of Judicial Review

(2) It is used to test the legality of any legislation by the Courts

(3) The Doctrine of Basic Structure of Constitution gave free hand to Parliament to amend any part of Constitution

(4) The Constitution of India defines 'basic structure' in terms of Federalism, Secularism, Fundamental Rights and Socialism.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Q7. Entry 5 of List II of Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with -

(A) Public Order

(B) Public Health

(D) Local Governments

Q8. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Art. 243 of Indian Constitution?

(1) Art. 243 (C) provides representation of chairpersons of Panchayats at the Village level in the Panchayats at the District level.

(2) Art. 243 (D) provides representation for women to the offices of chairperson in Panchayats at village level.

(3) Art 243 (I) is related to power to levy taxes by Panchayats

(4) Art. 243 (J) is related to bar on the courts to call in question the election of Panchayats

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 4

(D) 1 and 3

Q9. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the Election Commission of India?

(1) It is an autonomous Legal Body

(2) Part XV of Indian Constitution deals with the Elections and the Election Commission

(3) The Election Commission was established on January 25, 1950

(4) Art. 328 provides bar on the interference of Courts in electoral matters.

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 4

(D) 2 and 3

Q10. Which of the following Committees recommended for the creation of 'Nyaya Panchayats' at village level?

(A) L.M. Singhvi Committee

(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee

(D) Ashok Mehta Committee

Q11. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Attorney General of India'?

(1) Attorney General of India is a part of Indian Judiciary

(2) Attorney General of India is appointed by President on the advice of Chief Justice of India

(3) The term of office of Attorney General of India is not fixed by the Constitution

(4) Attorney General of India has right to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament.

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Q12. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Bills introduced in Parliament?

(1) If a Government Bill is rejected by the House in Parliament it amounts 'vote of confidence' in the Government

(2) The Government's Bill introduction in the House necessitates a fifteen-day notice

(3) The 'Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill 2021' comes under the category of Money Bill

(4) The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill 2021 comes under Ordinary Bill.

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 4

Q13. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Types of Majority in Parliament'?

(1) Absolute Majority - More than 50% of the House's total Strength

(2) Simple Majority - The majority of more than 50% of those present and voting

(3) Effective Majority : Majority of the House's effective strength.

(4) Effective Strength: means total strength excluding number of vacancies

(5) Special Majority : Majority of 2/3 members of total strength of the House

(A) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(B) 2, 3 and 5

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q14. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Sittings of Parliament' ?

(1) In the year 1955 a Lok Sabha Committee had proposed a time- table for parliamentary sessions with three times a year

(2) It suggested Budget Session from February 1, to May 7

(3) It suggested Monsoon Session from July 1 to September 10

(4) It suggested Winter Session from November 15 to December 15

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Q15. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Procedure established by Law' and 'Due process of Law"?

(I) Under the principle of ‘Procedure established by Law', as long as the government follows the procedures it has established, it's actions are considered valid, even if they may appear unfair, or unjust to individuals

(II) 'Due Process of Law' doctrine not only checks if there is a Law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also sees if the Law made is fair, just and not arbitrary.

(III) 'Procedure established by Law' is an American doctrine and 'Due Process of Law' is Indian constitutional doctrine.

(A) I is correct and II and III are not correct

(B) I and II are correct and III is not correct

(D) I, II and III are correct

Q16. Which of the following while pursuing common interests of their Groups, attempt to influence the Public Policy making?

(A) Pressure Groups

(B) Elite Groups

(D) Political Parties

Q17. During which part of the ‘public policy cycle' does the government explore potential policy responses?

(A) Values setting

(B) Policy formulation

(D) Policy feedback

Q18. The final six months of the Election cycle, when the government announces popular government initiatives is known as -

(A) Green Zone

(B) Yellow Zone

(D) Blue Zone

Q19. Which of the following are the features of 'Good Governance"?

(1) Accountability

(2) Conservatism

(3) Rigidity

(4) Transparency

(5) Integrity

(6) Micro Management

(A) 2, 3 and 6

(B) 1, 2 and 6

(D) 1,4 and 5

Q20. Which of the following are true about Public Policy?

(1) It is a way of doing things including rules and regulations

(2) It is a means of 'authoritative allocation of values'

(3) It is for Public Sector Organisations

(4) 'What the Government choose to do or not to do'

(A) 1,3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) All above

Q21. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Art. 21 of Indian Constitution?

(1) It guarantees Right to Life and Personal Liberty

(2) In the case of Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs Union of India 2020, Supreme Court held that 'Right to Water' is not a Fundamental Right but Legal Right

(3) Right to Water is inferred from the Right to Life

(4) The Supreme Court also held that access to Clear Water is a Natural Right

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

Q22. From which Constitution 'Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency' was borrowed to Indian Constitution?

(A) Soviet Constitution, USSR

(B) Weimer Constitution of Germany

(D) Swiss Constitution

Q23. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Right to Education'?

(1) Art. 21(A) of Indian Constitution provides Right to Education for free and compulsory education to all

(2) Right to Education Act was passed by Indian Parliament on August 4, 2009

(3) Right to Education came in to force on November 14, 2009

(4) Art. 21 (A) was inserted in the Constitution by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2004

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 2 and 4

Q24. Which of the following are related to 'Right to Privacy?

(1) Art. 21 of Indian Constitution

(2) Art. 12 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights

(3) Art. 17 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.

(4) Art. 8 of European Convention on Human Rights

(A) 1,3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) All above

Q25. Which Article of Universal Declaration of Human Rights tells that the 'Right of Nationality' depends on one's wish. "Every one has the Right to a Nationality"?

(A) Article 15

(B) Article 20

(D) Article 30

PYQ-2021-22

Q1. Which of the following language is not included in the Eight Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Bhojpuri

(B) Maithili

(D) Sindhi

Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of Parliamentary form of Government in India?

(i) This system is founded on the notion of collaboration and co-ordination between Legislature and Executive.

(ii) India borrowed Parliamentary form of Government from Britain.

(iii) This type of Government can also be formed without political parties.

(iv) In this form of Government the Head of the State is Prime Minister.

(A) (i) and (iv)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i) and (ii)

Q3. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Public Accounts Committee of Parliament ?

(i) This committe was first mentioned in Minto- Morley Reforms.

(ii) This committee is constituted under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.

(iii) This committee is constituted for every two years.

(iv) It restricts any minister for being elected as a member of it.

(A) (ii) and (iii)

(B)(i) only

(D) (ii) only

Q4. Which of the following features of Indian Constitution are not borrowed from South Africa?

(i) Election of the members of Rajya Sabha

(ii) Amendment of the Constitution

(iii) Concept of 'Procedure established by Law'

(iv) Centre appoints the Governors at the States

(A) (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

Q5. In respect of Rajya Sabha which of the following statement/s is / are correct?

(i) Like Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha is also subjected to dissolution.

(ii) Rajya Sabha has equal footing in legislation with the Lok Sabha including in the area of supply.

(iii) The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of Legislative Assemblies of States /UTS.

(iv) The nominated members of Rajya Sabha are part of Electoral College for Election of Vice-President.

(A) (iii) only

(B) (ii) and (iv)

(D) (iv) only

Q6. Which of the following statement/s is / are correct in respect of Impeachment of Indian President?

(i) The President of India is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution.

(ii) The charges against the President shall be preferred by Lok Sabha only.

(iii) Rajya Sabha only shall investigate the charges against President.

(iv) There is no provision of impeachment of President of India in Indian Constitution.

(A) (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i) and (iii)

Q7. Consider the following statements in respect of Collegium system in Judiciary:

(i) It is the system of appointments and transfer of Judges.

(ii) This system has come through an Act of Parliament.

(iii) The Supreme Court Collegium is comprising of Chief Justice of India and 8 other senior most Judges.

(iv) As for as Chief Justice of India is concerned the outgoing Chief Justice of India recommends his

successor.

Which of the above statement/s is/ are correct?

(A) (i) and (iv)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i) and (iii)

Q8. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(i) Part X of Indian Constitution deals with the Scheduled and Tribal areas.

(ii) This Part contains Art. 220 to Art. 224.

(iii) This Part deals with formation of autonomous state comprising of certain tribal areas in Assam.

(iv) Assam also comes under Fifth Schedule of Indian Constitution.

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (ii) and (iv)

(D) (i) only

Q9. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of National Institution for Transforming India?

(i) It serves as the Apex Public Policy Think Tank of Government of India.

(ii) It's predecessor adopted Bottom Up approach.

(iii) It's parent ministry is Ministry of Planning.

(iv) It strives to promote co-operative federalism.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) All of these

Q10. Which of the following taxes are levied and collected by Union but assigned to States?

(i) Corporation tax spilzey

(ii) Excise duty on tobacco.

(iii) Duties in respect of succession to property other than Agriculture land

(iv) Stamp duties on Bills of Exchange

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

Q11. Consider the following statements:

The Fundamental Duties:

(i) Are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens

(ii) Are not enforceable through courts.

(iii) Are added to the Constitution through 44th Amendment of Constitution.

(iv) The Eleventh Fundamental Duty was added to Part IV-A of Constitution by 42nd Amendment.

Which of the above statement/s is/ are correct?

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (ii) and (iv)

(D) (i) and (iv)

Q12. Consider the following statements:

In the Constitution of India:

(i) Bankruptcy and Insolvency are in Union List.

(ii) Trust and Trustees are in State List.

(iii) Social Security is in Concurrent List.

(iv) Capitation taxes is in State List.

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

Q13. Consider the following statements in respect of Welfare State:

A Welfare State is one which:

(i) Promotes political wellbeing of it's citizens.

(ii) Protects social wellbeing of it's electorate.

(iii) Is based on the principle of equal opportunity.

(iv) Promotes equal distribution of wealth.

Which of the above statement/s is/ are correct?

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i) and (iv)

Q14. Consider the following statements in respect of Fundamental Rights during times of Emergencies:

During the times of emergencies:

(i) The enforcement of all Fundamental Rights may be suspended.

(ii) There is provision for moving to court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

(iii) Right to Protection in respect of conviction for offences cannot be suspended.

(iv) Right to Protection of Life and Personal Property cannot be suspended.

Which of the above statement/s is/ are correct?

(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (ii) and (iv)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

Q15. Which of the following statement/s is/ are not correct in respect of Adjournment Motion in Lok Sabha ?

(i) It's objective is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance.

(ii) It requires proper and Seven days prior notice given to the Chair.

(iii) It will not interrupt the normal business of the House.

(iv) It pinpoints the failure of the Government in the performance of it's duties in accordance with Constitution and Laws.

(v) It is mandatory on the part of the Chair to permit the Motion.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (iii) and (v)

(D) (ii), (iii) and (v)

Q16. Consider the following statements in respect of Anti-defection Law in India?

(i) Political Parties got Constitutional recognition by 52nd Constitutional Amendment.

(ii) Anti-defection Law came into effect on March 18, 1985.

(iii) The decision of the Speaker in disqualifying an elected member is subject to judicial review.

(iv) Anti-defection law comes in action if there is split in the Political Party.

Which of the above statement/s is/ are correct?

(A)(ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Q17. Consider the following statements in respect of Panchayati Raj Institutions in India:

(i) Every Panchayati has right to receive grant-in- aid from the State Fund on the recommendation made by NITI Aayog.

(ii) The assigned / shared revenues are one which is collected by State Government but shared/ transferred to local bodies.

(iii) State Finance Commission recommends transfer of financial resources from Centre to the States.

(iv) The State Finance Commission created under Article 243 (1) reviews the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities.

Which of the above statement/s is/ are correct?

(A) (ii) and (iv)

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

Q18. Consider the following statements in respect of Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj System in India.

This Committee recommended:

(i) Replacement of the then three-tier system by a two-tier system

(ii) Setting up of Peace Committees at each District level to resolve non-secular issues

(iii) Supremacy of elected bodies through devolution of powers

(iv) Non-participation of political in Panchayati elections

Which of the above statement/s is / are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i) and (iii)

Q19. Consider the following statements in respect of Pressure Groups:

These groups act as Interest Groups and:

(i) Can influence the government regarding their particular interests.

(ii) The policies pursued by these groups will provide common benefits to society.

(iii) In order to influence the government they require number of members.

(iv) State Centred Theory assumes that these groups do not have enough popular support.

Which of the above statement/s is/ are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii) ́

(D) (i) ad (iv)

Q20. Consider the following statements in respect of Game Theory of Policy Evaluation:

The basic concepts of Game Theory model are:

(i) Players in a game can be people, governments or institutions.

(ii) Strategies are selected by players without anticipating the moves of other players.

(iii) Players have different preferences among the possible outcomes.

(iv) Payoffs are often used to represent the value of these outcomes to different players.

Which of the above statement/s is/ are correct?

(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Q21. Consider the following Satements in respect of Incremental Model of Policy Formulatin:

(i) The concept of incrementalism policy formulation is put forwarded by Robert Dahl.

(ii) The disjointed policy making depicts policy making as a process of muddling through.

(iii) The synoptic model of policy formulation acknowledges man's limited problem solving capacities.

(iv) Disjointed incrementalism explains governmental decision making.

(v) Logical incrementalism explains strategy formulation in large and complex business organisations.

Which of the above statement/s is / are correct?

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (v)

(D) (iii), (iv) and (v)

PYQ-2015

Q1. The provision of providing identity cards to voters has been made in:

(A) The Constitution of India

(B) The Representation of the People Act, 1958

(D) The Criminal and Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 1969

Q2. Who among the following describes the Indian economy as 'Bullock-cart Capitalism' ?

(A) Rajni Kothari

(B) Atul Kohli

(D) Granville Austin

Q3. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha ?

(A) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

(B) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

(D) The President may call a joint sitting.

Q4. Rajya Sabha is dissolved after every :

(A) Two years

(B) Six years

(D) is not subjected to dissolution

Q5. A money bill can be introduced only in:

(A) Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha

(D) None of the above

Q6. Writs can be issued for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights by:

(A) District Courts

(B) High Courts only

(D) Both Supreme Court as well as the High Courts

Q7. Panchayati Raj is included in:

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(D) None of the above

Q8. Who among the following has the power to issue ordinances under Article 129 ?

(A) Chief Justice of India

(B) The President of India

(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Q9. The doctrine of basic structure of the Indian Constitution was pronounced by the Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases?

(A) Minerva Mills Ltd. vs Union of India

(B) Kesavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala

(D) None of the above

Q10. Which one of the following was the First State to establish the institution of the Lokayukta in India?

(A) Bihar

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Odisha

Q11. Which one of the following was the first committee to demand constitutional recognition for Panchayats?

(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(B) Ashok Mehta Committee

(D) G. V. K. Rao Committee

Q12. In India, 'Collegium System' was first introduced in relation to:

(A) Executive

(B) Legislature

(D) Union State Relations

Q13. Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendations of:

(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(B) Gorwala Committee Report

(D) Santhanam Committee Report

Q14. Which constitutional amendment provided for the setting up of Administrative Tribunals in India?

(A) 24th Amendment

(B) 42nd Amendment

(D) 59th Amendment

Q15. Which of the following committee voiced concern about 'Criminalization of Politics and Politicization of Criminals' ?

(A) Tarakunde Committee

(B) Sachar Committee

(D) Indrajeet Gupta Committee

Indian Polity and Governance- Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

PYQ-2023-24

PYQ-2022-23

PYQ-2021-22

PYQ-2015

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