Prelims PYQs 2024

1. Which one among the following does not match properly the Noble Prize category with its 2024 laureate?
(A) Peace - Narges Mohammadi
(B) Literature - Han Kang
(C) Economics - Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson & James Robinson
(D) Physics - John Hopfield & Geoffrey Hinton
2. Who made history as the first Black man to win the Oscar for Best Costume Design at the 97th edition of the Academy Awards?
(A) Paul Tazewell
(B) Olivier Persin
(C) Emilia Pérez
(D) Sean Baker
3. Arrange the following texts in their chronological order of composition
(a) Brihalaranyaka upanishad
(b) Manusmriti
(c) Arthashastra
(d) Milinda Panha
(A) a-b-c-d
(B) b-c-a-d
(C) с-a-b-d
(D) a-c-b-d
4. Consider the following statements about India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs):
(1) India has committed to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels.
(2) India aims to achieve about 50% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
(3) India's updated NDC is linked to the Panchamrit announcement made at COP26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
5. Who has been appointed as India's new Deputy National security Adviser as of August 2025?
(A) Rajinder Khanna
(B) T. V. Ravichandran
(C) Anish Dayal Singh
(D) Pankaj Kumar Singh
6. Match the following
Day United Nations Events
(a) 3 March (1) World Wildlife Day
(b) 7 April (2) World Health Day
(c) 3 May (3) World Press Freedomday
(d) 20 June (3) World Refugee day

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
(B) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
(C) a-1 b-3 c-4 d-2
(D) a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4
7. What was the official theme of the 38th National Games?
(A) Fit India
(B) Sustainable Olympics
(C) Green Games
(D) Eco-Sports Initiative
8. Match List - I with List - II and select from Code :
List-I
(Colonial Policies/events)
List-II
(Impact on Odisha)
(a) Permanent Settlement (1793) (1) Aggravated economic distress of Odisha peasants
(b) British Reorganization after Maratha defeat (2) Led to the inclusion of Odia speaking tracts under different presidencies
(c) Imposition of Bengali (3) Caused resentment and fueled Odia linguistic identity movement
(d) Slavery Abolition (1843) (4) Enacted by Lord Ellenborough in Odisha
(e) Simon Commission (5) Petitioned by Krushna Chandra Gajapati for separate province

Code:

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
(B) a-2, b-1, с-3, d-4, e-5
(C) a-4, b-5, с-1, d-3, e-2
(D) a-5, b-3, c-4, d-2, e-1
9. Match List - I (Indian Rivers) with List - II (Their Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(Indian Rivers)
List-II
(Tributaries)
(a) Chambal 1. Bhima
(b) Cauvery 2. Noyyal
(c) Krishna 3. Banas
(d) Godavari 4. Manjra

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
10. Match List - I (Indian Rivers) with List - II (Their Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(River of Odisha)
List-II
(Tributaries)
(a) Mahanadi 1. Sankha
(b) Brahmani 2. Raru
(c) Baitarani 3. Ong
(d) Subarnarekha 4. Deo

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
11. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Kushans
(B) Sakas
(C) Parthians
(D) Indo Greeks
12. The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE) recently signed an MoU with which organisation to enhance public awareness about social justice schemes?
(A) Ministry of Defence
(B) National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
(C) National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
(D) Central Vigilance Commission
13. Match the initiative with its year of launch:
Scheme Year
(a) Ayushman Bharat (1) 2006
(b) National Skill Development Mission (2) 2018
(c) MGNREGS (3) 2015
(d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (4) 2014

Options:

(A) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(B) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
(C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(D) a-1, b²4, c-3, d-2
14. Match the following Rajput rulers with their notable battles or events :
Scheme Year
(a) Rana Sanga (1) Battle of Haldighati
(b) Maharana Pratap (2) Battle of Khanwa
(c) Rao Chandra Sen (3) Struggle against Akbar
(d) Raja Man Singh (4) Conquest of Odisha

(A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(B) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
(C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(D) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
15. Consider the following statements regarding the structural transformation of the Indian economy:
1. India's economic growth since the 1990s has been primarily led by the services sector, with a relatively smaller contribution from manufacturing.
2. The "Make in India” initiative aims to increase the manufacturing sector's share in GDP to 25% and create 100 million additional jobs by 2022.
3. Despite rapid economic growth, the share of the agricultural sector in India's GDP has consistently declined, while its share in employment remains significant.
4. The phenomenon of "premature deindustrialization” in India refers to the services sector growing rapidly without a strong manufacturing base.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1,3 and 4 only
(C) 2,3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
16. Which one of the following Article of Indian constitution provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 144
(D) Article 145
17.Which of the following statements about G-20 is NOT correct?
(A) The G20 was established in 1999.
(B) USA hosted the first G20 Summit of leaders in 2008.
(C) The presidency of the G20 rotates every year among member countries.
(D) Chile is a member of G20.
18.The foundational ideology of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was inspired by :
(A) Italian nationalist movement and the works of Mazzini
(B) Leninist Communism and the Russian Revolution
(C) American War of Independence and George Washington
(D) Irish freedom struggle and Sinn Fein Movement
19.Which of the following fundamental rights is available only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners?
(A) Right to Equality before Law (Article 14)
(B) Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)
(C) Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
(D) Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)
20. Match List - I (Geological Structure) with List - II (Economic Importance) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(Geological Structure)
List-II
(Economic Importance)
(a) Siwalik Hills 1. Coal, Mica, and Uranium Resources
(b) Deccan Traps 2. Black cotton soils, Sugarcane agriculture
(c) Singhbhum Craton 3. Fossil-rich Sedimentary deposit
(d) Chhota Nagpur Plateau 4. Rich in Iron ore deposits

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
21.As per the Global Hunger Index 2023, India ranks at which position globally?
(A) 105
(B) 107
(C) 111
(D) 115
22.Consider the following statements regarding ecological pyramids:
1.In a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is always upright.
2.Pyramids of biomass are always inverted in marine ecosystems.
3.Pyramids of energy are never inverted.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1,2 and 3
23.Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1.He is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
2.He has the right to participate in proceedings of Parliament but without voting rights.
3.He must have qualifications equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
4.His remuneration is fixed by the Parliament through a law under Article 148 of the constitution

Options:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
24.Which of the following statements about the Chenab Rail Bridge is correct?
1.It is a Cable-stayed bridge.
2.The Chenab Rail Bridge is taller than the Eiffel Tower.
3.It is a part of the Golden Quadrilateral Railway Project.
4.It is the world's highest Railway arch bridge.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 3
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 4
25.Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding Schedules of the Indian Constitution?
(A) 6th Schedule - Languages recognized by the Constitution
(B) 7th Schedule - Division of powers between Union and States
(C) 8th Schedule - Land Reforms and Ceiling on Landholdings
(D) 9th Schedule - Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
26.Which category under the IUCN classification is not directly recognized in the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
(A) Critically Endangered
(B) Vulnerable
(C) Endemic
(D) Extinct in the Wild
27.Acetylsalicylic acid is known as:
(A) Oil of wintergreen
(B) Aspirin
(C) Ibuprofen
(D) Paracetamol
28.Match List - I with List - II and select from Code:
List-I
(Name)
List-II
(Activities)
(a) Madhusudan Das (1) Leader of Khurda Rebellion
(b) Buxi Jagabandhu (2) Founder of Utkal Sammilani
(c) Fakir Mohan Senapati (3) Pioneer of Modern Odia literature
(d) Krushna Chandra Gajapati (4) Played Key role in Odisha's R1 separate province formation

Code:

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(B) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(C) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
29.What does NISAR stand for?
(A) NASA-ISRO Space and Aeronautics Research
(B) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar
(C) National Indian Space and Aeronautics Radar
(D) NASA International Satellite for Advanced Research
30.Consider the contributions and challenges of the Services Sector in India:
1. The Services sector is the largest contributor to India's GDP and has been the primary driver of economic growth in recent decades.
2. Despite its large share in GDP, the services sector's share in total employment is significantly lower than that of agriculture.
3. The growth in services has often been termed "jobless growth" in the formal sector, leading to a rise in informal service sector's employment.
4. Digitalization and the rise of the IT/ITeS sector have further solidified India's position as a global service hub, but the benefits are not uniformly distributed across the workforce.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2,3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
31.Consider the following statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R), and select the correct option using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): In central and southern Odisha, the Proterozoic era is represented by the Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt, which consists of khondalite, charnockite, migmatite, anorthosite and alkaline rocks.
Reason (R): These rock formations are linked to the mineralisation of bauxite, manganese, graphite, and gemstones.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
32.Match List - I with List - II and Select the correct answer while using the Code given below
List-I
(Leader)
List-II
(organisation)
(a) M. C. Raja (1) All India Depressed Classess League
(b) Jagjivan Ram (2) All India Depressed Classes Congress
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (3) All India Depressed Classes Association
(d) Mahatma Gandhi (4) All India Harijan Sangh

Code:

(A) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(B) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
(C) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
(D) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
33.The Ganjam Plates of Madhav Raja II of the Shailodbhava dynasty provide valuable information about which aspect of early Medieval Odisha's history?
(A) The generalogy and territorical extent of the Shailodbhava rulers.
(B) The maritime trade networks of the Shailodbhavas with South east Asia
(C) The construction of the Mukteshvara temple at Bhubaneswar
(D) The diplomatic relations between the Shailodbhavas and the Gupta Empire
34.Which of the following statements about the Asia Cup cricket tournament is NOT correct.
(1) The Asia Cup is a cricket tournament played among the Asian group of nations.
(2) The Asia Cup is organised by the Asian Cricket Council.
(3) The Asia Cup was first held in the year 1984.
(4) The first Asia Cup cricket tournament was played in Colombo, Sri Lanka.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 1
(D) 4 only
35. Match List- I (Sub divisions of Himalayas) with List - II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(Sub divisions of Himalayas)
List-II
(Characteristics)
(a) Trans-Himalaya 1. Known for hill stations like Shimla Mussoorie
(b) Greater Himalaya 2. Composed of unconsolidated sediments forming foothills
(c) Lesser Himalaya 3. Includes Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar range
(d) Siwaliks 4. Contain Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2

Contact Form